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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

09.06.2025 04:25

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

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If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Why do US military soldiers/officers have a chest full of medal ribbons when they probably haven't been in a combat situation? Are the medals for attendance, good behaviour, or long service perhaps?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

There's no rule.

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You'll usually find your answer there.